Practice Questions

Cloze (Drop-Down) NCLEX Practice Questions

Cloze items, often called drop-down questions, present a clinical sentence or short paragraph with embedded blanks, and each blank opens its own list of choices. You must select the one option per blank that completes the statement accurately, so a single item can test assessment, pharmacology, and expected outcomes at the same time. The eight practice items below cover warfarin management, asthma, burn resuscitation, seizure care, pediatric dehydration, hypertensive crisis, appendectomy recovery, and chest tubes, each with a full rationale. New to these formats? See our complete guide to NGN question types, or practice all six NGN item types.

Cloze (Drop-Down) NCLEX Practice Questions

Item 1 · Cloze (Drop-Down) · Warfarin and INR Management

A 68-year-old client with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation is being discharged on warfarin 5 mg PO daily. The client asks the nurse to review what the laboratory numbers mean and what to watch for at home. The most recent INR is 2.4.

Complete the discharge teaching by selecting the option that correctly completes each statement.

For anticoagulation in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, the target INR range is [1]. If this client later develops an INR above 10 with active gastrointestinal bleeding, the nurse anticipates administration of [2] in addition to blood product support. To keep the INR stable at home, the nurse teaches the client to maintain a consistent daily intake of [3].

Blank [1] – Target INR range
  • 1.0 to 2.0
  • 2.0 to 3.0
  • 2.5 to 3.5
  • 3.0 to 4.5
Blank [2] – Reversal agent
  • Protamine sulfate
  • Aminocaproic acid
  • Vitamin K (phytonadione)
  • Calcium gluconate
Blank [3] – Dietary teaching
  • Green leafy vegetables
  • Citrus juice
  • Dairy products
  • High-protein meats
Show answer & rationale
Blank [1] – Target INR range: 2.0 to 3.0
Blank [2] – Reversal agent: Vitamin K (phytonadione)
Blank [3] – Dietary teaching: Green leafy vegetables
The standard therapeutic INR for nonvalvular atrial fibrillation is 2.0 to 3.0, with a target of about 2.5. An INR of 1.0 to 2.0 is subtherapeutic and leaves the client at continued risk for cardioembolic stroke. The higher range of 2.5 to 3.5 is reserved for specific higher-risk indications such as a mechanical mitral valve or some cases of antiphospholipid syndrome, not for routine atrial fibrillation, and 3.0 to 4.5 exceeds any routine outpatient target and carries excessive bleeding risk.

Vitamin K (phytonadione) is the specific reversal agent for warfarin because warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K epoxide reductase and depleting functional clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. For major bleeding, current practice pairs intravenous vitamin K 5 to 10 mg with four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate, or fresh frozen plasma when PCC is unavailable. Protamine sulfate reverses heparin, not warfarin. Aminocaproic acid is an antifibrinolytic used for bleeding from fibrinolysis, not for vitamin K antagonist reversal. Calcium gluconate treats hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, and magnesium toxicity.

The correct dietary teaching is consistency, not avoidance. Green leafy vegetables such as spinach, kale, broccoli, and Brussels sprouts are rich in vitamin K, and wide swings in intake cause the INR to drift. Telling a client to eliminate these foods is outdated and nutritionally harmful; the goal is a steady amount week to week so the warfarin dose can be titrated around it. Citrus juice, dairy products, and protein intake do not meaningfully alter INR, although grapefruit and cranberry juice in large volumes and alcohol binges warrant caution. The client should also report black or tarry stools, bleeding gums, and unusual bruising.

Item 2 · Cloze (Drop-Down) · Acute Asthma Exacerbation

A 24-year-old client arrives in the emergency department with an acute asthma exacerbation. The client is using accessory muscles, speaks in short phrases, has a respiratory rate of 32/min, oxygen saturation of 89% on room air, and diffuse expiratory wheezing throughout both lung fields.

Complete the statements below by selecting the option that correctly completes each sentence.

After applying supplemental oxygen, the medication the nurse anticipates administering first is [1]. If reassessment reveals that the wheezing has disappeared and the chest is silent, the nurse interprets this as [2]. An arterial blood gas drawn early in this exacerbation would most likely show [3].

Blank [1] – First medication
  • Inhaled corticosteroid such as fluticasone
  • Short-acting beta-2 agonist such as albuterol
  • Long-acting beta-2 agonist such as salmeterol
  • Leukotriene modifier such as montelukast
Blank [2] – Interpretation of a silent chest
  • Resolution of bronchospasm
  • Improved air movement
  • Worsening obstruction and impending respiratory failure
  • An expected response to oxygen therapy
Blank [3] – Early arterial blood gas pattern
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Metabolic acidosis
Show answer & rationale
Blank [1] – First medication: Short-acting beta-2 agonist such as albuterol
Blank [2] – Interpretation of a silent chest: Worsening obstruction and impending respiratory failure
Blank [3] – Early arterial blood gas pattern: Respiratory alkalosis
A short-acting beta-2 agonist such as albuterol is the first-line rescue medication in an acute exacerbation because it produces bronchodilation within minutes by relaxing airway smooth muscle. It is typically given as repeated nebulized doses or by metered-dose inhaler with spacer, often combined with ipratropium in the emergency setting. Inhaled corticosteroids and systemic corticosteroids are essential to treat the underlying airway inflammation, but their onset takes hours, so they follow rather than precede the bronchodilator. Salmeterol is a long-acting agent with a slower onset and is contraindicated as monotherapy for rescue. Montelukast is a controller medication for long-term management and has no role in acute rescue.

A silent chest is an ominous finding, not a reassuring one. Wheezing requires turbulent airflow; when obstruction becomes severe enough that almost no air moves, the wheeze disappears. Combined with a rising respiratory rate, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences, a silent chest signals impending respiratory failure and requires immediate escalation, including preparation for intubation.

Early in an exacerbation the client hyperventilates in response to hypoxemia and air hunger, blowing off carbon dioxide and producing respiratory alkalosis with a low PaCO2 and elevated pH. This is why a normalizing or rising PaCO2 in a fatiguing asthmatic is a red flag rather than a sign of improvement: it means ventilation is failing, and respiratory acidosis is a late and dangerous development. Metabolic alkalosis is unrelated to this presentation, and while severe prolonged hypoxemia can eventually generate lactic acidosis, that is not the early pattern. Continuous pulse oximetry, serial peak flows, and reassessment after each bronchodilator treatment guide the response.

Item 3 · Cloze (Drop-Down) · Burn Fluid Resuscitation Using the Parkland Formula

An 80 kg adult client is admitted at 0800 with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns involving 40% total body surface area. The burns occurred at 0700. The provider orders fluid resuscitation using the Parkland formula.

Complete the resuscitation plan by selecting the option that correctly completes each statement.

The isotonic crystalloid of choice for the first 24 hours of burn resuscitation is [1]. Using the Parkland formula of 4 mL/kg per percent total body surface area burned, the volume this client should receive in the first 8 hours after the time of injury is [2]. The nurse titrates the infusion primarily to a target urine output of [3].

Blank [1] – Fluid selection
  • Lactated Ringer's solution
  • 0.45% sodium chloride
  • 5% dextrose in water
  • 25% albumin
Blank [2] – Volume in the first 8 hours
  • 3,200 mL
  • 6,400 mL
  • 12,800 mL
  • 16,000 mL
Blank [3] – Resuscitation endpoint
  • 10 to 20 mL/hr
  • 30 to 50 mL/hr
  • 75 to 100 mL/hr
  • 120 to 150 mL/hr
Show answer & rationale
Blank [1] – Fluid selection: Lactated Ringer's solution
Blank [2] – Volume in the first 8 hours: 6,400 mL
Blank [3] – Resuscitation endpoint: 30 to 50 mL/hr
Lactated Ringer's is the standard resuscitation fluid for major burns. It is isotonic, closely approximates extracellular fluid, and the lactate is metabolized to bicarbonate, which helps buffer the metabolic acidosis of burn shock. Hypotonic 0.45% sodium chloride and 5% dextrose in water shift into the intracellular space and worsen cerebral and tissue edema without supporting intravascular volume. Colloids such as albumin are generally withheld during the first 12 to 24 hours because capillary leak allows protein to escape into the interstitium; some centers add colloid after that window.

The Parkland calculation is 4 mL x body weight in kilograms x percent TBSA burned: 4 x 80 x 40 = 12,800 mL total for the first 24 hours. Half of that total, 6,400 mL, is given over the first 8 hours, and the remaining 6,400 mL over the following 16 hours. The distractor of 12,800 mL is the full 24-hour volume, and 3,200 mL represents only a quarter. A critical detail is that the clock starts at the time of injury, not the time of admission. This client was burned at 0700 and admitted at 0800, so only 7 hours remain in the first phase and the hourly rate must be recalculated accordingly, roughly 914 mL/hr rather than 800 mL/hr.

The formula is only a starting point; titration is guided by response. Adequate resuscitation in an adult is reflected by urine output of 0.5 mL/kg/hr, about 30 to 50 mL/hr, along with a clearing sensorium, heart rate below 120, and improving base deficit. Pediatric clients are titrated to 1 mL/kg/hr. Chasing higher outputs causes fluid creep, abdominal compartment syndrome, and pulmonary edema.

Item 4 · Cloze (Drop-Down) · Seizure Precautions and Intraseizure Care

A 35-year-old client with newly diagnosed epilepsy is admitted for observation and titration of levetiracetam. While the nurse is in the room, the client's eyes deviate to the right, the body stiffens, and generalized tonic-clonic jerking begins.

Complete the statements below by selecting the option that correctly completes each sentence.

The nurse's priority action during the active tonic-clonic phase is to [1]. During the seizure the nurse must avoid [2]. Once the convulsive movements stop, the nurse expects the client to be [3].

Blank [1] – Priority action
  • Restrain the extremities to prevent injury
  • Turn the client onto the side and protect the head
  • Insert an oral airway between the teeth
  • Perform a rapid neurologic examination
Blank [2] – Action to avoid
  • Loosening restrictive clothing
  • Timing the duration of the seizure
  • Forcing an object into the mouth
  • Removing nearby furniture
Blank [3] – Expected postseizure state
  • Alert and fully oriented
  • Drowsy, confused, and unable to recall the event
  • Agitated with sustained hypertension requiring treatment
  • Paralyzed on the affected side permanently
Show answer & rationale
Blank [1] – Priority action: Turn the client onto the side and protect the head
Blank [2] – Action to avoid: Forcing an object into the mouth
Blank [3] – Expected postseizure state: Drowsy, confused, and unable to recall the event
During an active generalized tonic-clonic seizure the nurse cannot stop the seizure, so care focuses on airway and injury prevention. Turning the client to a side-lying position lets saliva and secretions drain from the mouth and keeps the tongue from occluding the airway, while padding or cradling the head prevents blunt trauma. Restraining the extremities does not shorten the seizure and can cause fractures, dislocations, and soft tissue injury. A rapid neurologic examination is meaningless during the convulsion and is deferred to the postictal period.

Forcing an object such as a tongue blade, padded spoon, or gloved finger into the mouth is contraindicated. It can break teeth, lacerate the oral mucosa, push the tongue backward, obstruct the airway, or result in a bite injury to the nurse. The old teaching that a client can swallow the tongue is false. Loosening restrictive clothing, clearing furniture and hard objects from the area, and timing the seizure are all appropriate. Timing matters clinically: a convulsion lasting five minutes or longer, or repeated seizures without return to baseline between them, meets the definition of status epilepticus and requires emergency benzodiazepine administration such as IV lorazepam.

The postictal phase typically involves drowsiness, confusion, headache, muscle soreness, and amnesia for the event, sometimes lasting minutes to hours. The nurse maintains a side-lying position, provides oxygen and suction as needed, reorients calmly, and keeps the environment quiet until the client returns to baseline. Permanent hemiparesis is not expected; transient focal weakness after a seizure, known as Todd paralysis, resolves within hours. Standing seizure precautions include keeping the bed in the lowest position with rails up and padded, oxygen and suction at the bedside, and no oral temperature measurement.

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Item 5 · Cloze (Drop-Down) · Pediatric Dehydration From Acute Gastroenteritis

A 2-year-old weighing 12 kg is brought to the clinic with a two-day history of vomiting and watery diarrhea. The child is fussy but consolable, has slightly sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes, capillary refill of 2 to 3 seconds, and has had two wet diapers in the past 12 hours. The clinic weight one week ago was 13 kg.

Complete the statements below by selecting the option that correctly completes each sentence.

The most reliable indicator of the volume of fluid this child has lost is [1]. For dehydration of this severity, the recommended first-line treatment is [2]. If the child later becomes lethargic with a weak thready pulse and delayed capillary refill greater than 4 seconds, the nurse anticipates an initial intravenous bolus of [3].

Blank [1] – Best indicator of fluid deficit
  • Acute change in body weight
  • Serum sodium level
  • Urine specific gravity
  • Skin turgor over the abdomen
Blank [2] – First-line treatment
  • Oral rehydration solution given in small frequent volumes
  • Plain water offered ad libitum
  • Apple juice and carbonated soda
  • Immediate intravenous maintenance fluids
Blank [3] – Bolus for hypovolemic shock
  • 120 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride
  • 240 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride
  • 600 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride
  • 240 mL of 0.45% sodium chloride
Show answer & rationale
Blank [1] – Best indicator of fluid deficit: Acute change in body weight
Blank [2] – First-line treatment: Oral rehydration solution given in small frequent volumes
Blank [3] – Bolus for hypovolemic shock: 240 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride
Acute change in body weight is the gold standard for quantifying fluid loss in children because 1 kg of weight equals approximately 1 liter of fluid. This child dropped from 13 kg to 12 kg, a loss of 1 kg or roughly 7.7% of body weight, which places the child in the moderate dehydration range of 6% to 9%. Serum sodium describes the type of dehydration, not the volume lost. Urine specific gravity and skin turgor are supportive assessment findings but are influenced by many other variables and are far less precise.

Oral rehydration solution is the recommended first-line therapy for mild to moderate dehydration, given as approximately 50 to 100 mL/kg over 3 to 4 hours in small frequent amounts such as 5 to 10 mL every few minutes, with additional replacement for ongoing stool losses. Small volumes are better tolerated and vomiting is not a contraindication. Plain water lacks sodium and glucose and can precipitate hyponatremia and seizures in a small child. Fruit juices and sodas have a high osmotic sugar load and inadequate electrolytes, which worsens osmotic diarrhea. Intravenous fluids are reserved for failed oral therapy, severe dehydration, or altered mental status.

If the child progresses to hypovolemic shock, resuscitation begins with a 20 mL/kg bolus of an isotonic crystalloid such as 0.9% sodium chloride or lactated Ringer's, which equals 240 mL for this 12 kg child, infused rapidly over 5 to 20 minutes and repeated based on reassessment. A 10 mL/kg bolus is too small for shock in this setting, 50 mL/kg is not a single bolus dose, and hypotonic 0.45% sodium chloride is never used for volume resuscitation because it does not stay in the intravascular space.

Item 6 · Cloze (Drop-Down) · Hypertensive Crisis in the Emergency Department

A 59-year-old client presents to the emergency department with a severe occipital headache, blurred vision, and nausea. Blood pressure is 224/128 mm Hg in both arms, heart rate is 96/min. Neurologic examination shows no focal deficits, and funduscopic examination reveals flame hemorrhages and papilledema.

Complete the statements below by selecting the option that correctly completes each sentence.

Based on the elevated blood pressure combined with the funduscopic findings, this presentation is classified as [1]. The nurse anticipates an order for [2] delivered by continuous infusion with intra-arterial or frequent noninvasive monitoring. During the first hour of treatment, the mean arterial pressure should be lowered by no more than [3].

Blank [1] – Classification
  • Stage 2 hypertension
  • Hypertensive urgency
  • Hypertensive emergency
  • White coat hypertension
Blank [2] – Anticipated medication
  • Oral nifedipine capsule administered sublingually
  • Intravenous nicardipine
  • Oral hydrochlorothiazide
  • Subcutaneous enoxaparin
Blank [3] – First-hour blood pressure goal
  • 10%
  • 25%
  • 50%
  • To a normal value below 120/80 mm Hg
Show answer & rationale
Blank [1] – Classification: Hypertensive emergency
Blank [2] – Anticipated medication: Intravenous nicardipine
Blank [3] – First-hour blood pressure goal: 25%
A hypertensive emergency is defined as a systolic pressure above 180 mm Hg or diastolic above 120 mm Hg accompanied by evidence of acute target organ damage. This client has papilledema and flame hemorrhages, which represent acute hypertensive retinopathy (target organ damage), and the headache, blurred vision, and nausea raise concern for hypertensive encephalopathy, so this is an emergency rather than an urgency. Hypertensive urgency describes the same severe pressures without acute organ injury and is managed with oral agents and close outpatient follow-up rather than intravenous therapy. Stage 2 hypertension refers to chronic readings of 140/90 mm Hg or higher and is a diagnostic category, not an acute crisis. White coat hypertension is elevation confined to the clinical setting and would not produce papilledema.

Hypertensive emergencies require titratable intravenous agents in a monitored setting. Nicardipine, clevidipine, labetalol, esmolol, and nitroglycerin are common choices, selected according to the organ involved; nitroglycerin is favored in acute coronary syndrome and esmolol or labetalol in aortic dissection. Nicardipine is a reasonable first choice for hypertensive encephalopathy. Immediate-release nifedipine given sublingually is dangerous and obsolete because it causes abrupt, unpredictable pressure drops leading to stroke and myocardial infarction. Hydrochlorothiazide is an oral maintenance drug with far too slow an onset. Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant and has no role in blood pressure control.

Blood pressure must be lowered gradually. The standard target is a reduction of no more than 25% of the mean arterial pressure within the first hour, then toward 160/100 to 110 mm Hg over the next 2 to 6 hours, and to normal over 24 to 48 hours. Chronic hypertension shifts cerebral autoregulation rightward, so a rapid drop to a normal value causes cerebral, coronary, and renal hypoperfusion and infarction. Exceptions exist for aortic dissection, which requires a systolic pressure below 120 mm Hg within 20 minutes.

Item 7 · Cloze (Drop-Down) · Post-Operative Care After Appendectomy

A 19-year-old client returns to the surgical unit after a laparoscopic appendectomy for a perforated appendix. The client has a temperature of 99.8 F (37.7 C), heart rate 92/min, blood pressure 118/70 mm Hg, and reports incisional pain rated 5 on a 0 to 10 scale. Intravenous antibiotics are infusing.

Complete the postoperative plan by selecting the option that correctly completes each statement.

To promote drainage away from the diaphragm and reduce the risk of a subdiaphragmatic abscess, the nurse positions the client in [1]. To prevent postoperative atelectasis, the nurse instructs the client to [2] at least ten times each hour while awake. The finding that requires immediate notification of the surgeon is [3].

Blank [1] – Positioning
  • Semi-Fowler position
  • Trendelenburg position
  • Supine with the bed flat
  • Left lateral recumbent position
Blank [2] – Pulmonary intervention
  • Use the incentive spirometer and splint the incision while coughing
  • Breathe into a paper bag
  • Perform pursed-lip breathing only
  • Remain still to avoid straining the incision
Blank [3] – Finding to report immediately
  • Absent bowel sounds two hours after surgery
  • A rigid, board-like abdomen with a temperature of 102.4 F (39.1 C)
  • Serosanguineous drainage on the port-site dressing
  • Shoulder discomfort after laparoscopy
Show answer & rationale
Blank [1] – Positioning: Semi-Fowler position
Blank [2] – Pulmonary intervention: Use the incentive spirometer and splint the incision while coughing
Blank [3] – Finding to report immediately: A rigid, board-like abdomen with a temperature of 102.4 F (39.1 C)
Semi-Fowler position, with the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees, uses gravity to keep any peritoneal fluid or purulent drainage in the lower abdomen and pelvis, away from the diaphragm. This lowers the risk of a subdiaphragmatic abscess, which is a real concern after a perforated appendix, and it also improves diaphragmatic excursion and comfort. Trendelenburg does the opposite by directing contaminated fluid upward toward the diaphragm. A flat supine position provides no drainage advantage and worsens splinting, and left lateral recumbent positioning has no specific benefit here.

Incentive spirometry with incisional splinting is the core intervention for preventing atelectasis and postoperative pneumonia. Sustained maximal inspiration reopens collapsed alveoli, and holding a pillow against the incision reduces pain enough that the client will actually take deep breaths, cough, and ambulate. Rebreathing into a paper bag is not an accepted intervention and risks hypoxemia. Pursed-lip breathing helps clients with obstructive disease control exhalation but does not recruit alveoli. Immobility is the direct cause of atelectasis and venous thromboembolism, not a protective measure.

A rigid, board-like abdomen with a fever of 102.4 F signals peritonitis, which after a perforated appendix may indicate a spreading intra-abdominal infection or abscess and requires immediate surgical evaluation. The other findings are expected. Bowel sounds are commonly absent for a period after abdominal surgery because of transient ileus from anesthesia and manipulation. A small amount of serosanguineous drainage on a port-site dressing is normal early healing. Shoulder discomfort is a classic and self-limited consequence of residual carbon dioxide insufflation irritating the diaphragm after laparoscopy, and it resolves with ambulation and analgesia. The nurse should also monitor for a low-grade temperature, which is common in the first 48 hours.

Item 8 · Cloze (Drop-Down) · Chest Tube Management After Thoracic Surgery

A client has a chest tube connected to a disposable water-seal drainage system after a right upper lobectomy. The system is set to -20 cm H2O of suction. The nurse performs an assessment at the start of the shift.

Complete the statements below by selecting the option that correctly completes each sentence.

The nurse observes the fluid in the water-seal chamber rising and falling with the client's respirations. The nurse interprets this finding as [1]. If continuous bubbling is later noted in the water-seal chamber, the nurse should first [2]. If the chest tube is accidentally pulled out of the client's chest, the nurse should immediately [3].

Blank [1] – Interpretation of fluctuation
  • Tidaling, an expected finding
  • An air leak in the system
  • Obstruction of the chest tube
  • Tension pneumothorax
Blank [2] – Response to continuous bubbling
  • Clamp the chest tube for one hour and reassess
  • Milk and strip the tubing vigorously
  • Assess the tubing connections and dressing for a leak
  • Increase the suction setting
Blank [3] – Response to accidental removal
  • Cover the site with a sterile occlusive dressing taped on three sides
  • Cover the site with a dressing taped on all four sides
  • Reinsert the chest tube immediately
  • Leave the site open to air and call the provider
Show answer & rationale
Blank [1] – Interpretation of fluctuation: Tidaling, an expected finding
Blank [2] – Response to continuous bubbling: Assess the tubing connections and dressing for a leak
Blank [3] – Response to accidental removal: Cover the site with a sterile occlusive dressing taped on three sides
Tidaling, the gentle rise and fall of the water-seal fluid with respiration, reflects normal changes in intrapleural pressure and confirms the system is patent. The fluid rises with inspiration and falls with expiration in a spontaneously breathing client, and the pattern reverses with positive-pressure ventilation. Tidaling that suddenly stops suggests either lung reexpansion, which is the desired outcome, or an obstruction such as a kink or clot, so it must be correlated with the client's respiratory status and chest imaging.

Intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber during forceful expiration or coughing is normal in the early postoperative period as pleural air evacuates. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, and the nurse's first action is to locate it by assessing the insertion site dressing and systematically checking the tubing connections, moving from the client toward the drainage unit. Clamping a chest tube is generally avoided because trapped air can convert a simple pneumothorax into a life-threatening tension pneumothorax; it is reserved for specific situations per provider order or facility policy, such as brief clamping to locate a leak or change the drainage unit, or a trial clamp before tube removal. Routine milking and stripping generates dangerously high negative pressures and tissue trauma and is not recommended. Increasing suction does not fix a leak and may worsen it. Note that gentle continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber of a wet system is expected and simply reflects the suction level.

If the tube is dislodged from the chest, the nurse immediately covers the wound with a sterile occlusive dressing secured on three sides. This creates a flutter valve that allows air to escape during exhalation while preventing air from being drawn into the pleural space during inhalation. Taping all four sides traps air and can cause a tension pneumothorax. Nurses do not reinsert chest tubes, and leaving the site open allows continued atmospheric entry. The nurse then assesses respiratory status and notifies the provider.

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Frequently Asked Questions

What is a cloze or drop-down question on the NCLEX?

A cloze item gives you a sentence or short paragraph about a client with one or more words removed. Each blank contains a drop-down menu of choices, and you select the single option that makes the statement clinically accurate. NCSBN uses several formats, including drop-down cloze, drop-down rationale, drop-down table, and drop-down chart, but the mechanic is the same in each.

How are drop-down cloze questions scored?

Cloze items use polytomous partial-credit scoring under the 0/1 rule. In a standard drop-down cloze, each blank is scored independently, so you earn credit for every drop-down you complete correctly and lose nothing for the ones you miss (items that pair an action with its reason use NCSBN’s rationale rule, where both parts must be correct). There is no penalty for a wrong selection, which means you should always make a choice in every blank rather than leaving one unanswered.

What is the best strategy for answering cloze items?

Read the entire passage first so you understand the whole clinical picture before you open any menu. Then work one blank at a time, and before looking at the choices, decide what the sentence needs. Treat each blank as its own question, because the blanks often test different content areas. Finally, reread the completed sentence start to finish to confirm it makes clinical sense as a whole.

Do I have to answer every blank to get any credit?

No. Because each blank is scored separately, getting two out of three blanks right still earns partial credit. That said, NCSBN states that candidates must answer each item to move on and cannot skip questions, so make a selection in every drop-down; a wrong choice in one blank simply scores zero for that blank. Never leave one blank because you are unsure of the others.

Sources

Sources checked September 2026.